luckyme
04-29-2007, 01:36 PM
The concept of ‘sameness’ is puzzling for me. I’ve had a run or two at it on here in the past and I’m ready to tackle it again.
On two separate occasions you face the same cards and same multiway preflop action in a limit poker game. Both times an opponent bets out on the flop. Opponent 1 is the world’s best limit player, opponent 2 is a novice. Obviously they both believe ‘ I should bet now’, but is it meaningful to say they have the same belief?
Philosophy is at it’s weakest when it detaches from reality and becomes a formal word game. I don’t think there is evidence that we ‘have beliefs’. Most beliefs seem something we mainly produce in response to cognitive probes. Are beliefs like myriad one-line sticky notes dangling at various angles from the amygdala?
If we could follow the construction of the belief of both opponents we would never see a similar cognitive formation at any time as they reach the decision to raise. It’s merely our necessity to compress complexity into communicable forms that we fall into this ‘sameness’ trap. It’s like calling two animals the same because they are both dogs.
The fact that we sum up these two situations as “they both believe they should raise” should not condemn us to accepting that they have the same belief. Just as ‘they’re both dogs’ doesn’t nullify the fact that one has long brown hair and the other is hairless, neither should the totally different features behind our two opponents decision to raise be considered as their having the same belief.
I suppose one issue I’m raising is the ‘you can’t step into the same river twice’ or as Dennett commented once, you can’t take the ‘same’ golf putt twice.
Really, I’ve entangled two issues - the problem of blurred sameness and the issue of the nature of belief ( which seems something we construct rather than something we have in almost all cases).. Any useful comments that stay on target would be much appreciated. Chez gave me some help in the past but it obviously didn’t take. Sigh.
Thanks, luckyme
On two separate occasions you face the same cards and same multiway preflop action in a limit poker game. Both times an opponent bets out on the flop. Opponent 1 is the world’s best limit player, opponent 2 is a novice. Obviously they both believe ‘ I should bet now’, but is it meaningful to say they have the same belief?
Philosophy is at it’s weakest when it detaches from reality and becomes a formal word game. I don’t think there is evidence that we ‘have beliefs’. Most beliefs seem something we mainly produce in response to cognitive probes. Are beliefs like myriad one-line sticky notes dangling at various angles from the amygdala?
If we could follow the construction of the belief of both opponents we would never see a similar cognitive formation at any time as they reach the decision to raise. It’s merely our necessity to compress complexity into communicable forms that we fall into this ‘sameness’ trap. It’s like calling two animals the same because they are both dogs.
The fact that we sum up these two situations as “they both believe they should raise” should not condemn us to accepting that they have the same belief. Just as ‘they’re both dogs’ doesn’t nullify the fact that one has long brown hair and the other is hairless, neither should the totally different features behind our two opponents decision to raise be considered as their having the same belief.
I suppose one issue I’m raising is the ‘you can’t step into the same river twice’ or as Dennett commented once, you can’t take the ‘same’ golf putt twice.
Really, I’ve entangled two issues - the problem of blurred sameness and the issue of the nature of belief ( which seems something we construct rather than something we have in almost all cases).. Any useful comments that stay on target would be much appreciated. Chez gave me some help in the past but it obviously didn’t take. Sigh.
Thanks, luckyme