IdealFugacity
02-01-2007, 01:55 PM
(to cite source of problem, this is problem 13.19 from Physical Chemistry, by Thomas Engel and Philip Reid, (c) 2006 Pearson Education, Inc.)
This is not a collected homework problem, it is an 'assigned' practice problem (I dont have to hand it in or even do it for any kind of grade)
I've solved through applying the operator to the function on different occasions and got the same answer, so I don't need anyone to actually do any math here, just tell me if my final answer is 'allowed' please/
The question:
Find the result of operating with:
( 1 / r^2 )( d/dr )( r^2 )( d/dr + 2/r )
on the function
A * exp( -br )
What must the values of A and b be to make ths function an eigenfunction of the operator?
Solving through, applying the operator results in:
A * exp( -br) * ( b^2 + 2/r^2 - 4b/r)
Because of the 2 / r^2 term, I think the answer has to be:
"A must be 0, and b can have any value"
If that is not allowed, I think the answer is "there are no values that would make this function an eigenfunction of the operator"
Is A=0 a cheap way out? It seems like 0 would be a common solution for many eigenfunction problems if it is allowed.
Thanks again for any input!
This is not a collected homework problem, it is an 'assigned' practice problem (I dont have to hand it in or even do it for any kind of grade)
I've solved through applying the operator to the function on different occasions and got the same answer, so I don't need anyone to actually do any math here, just tell me if my final answer is 'allowed' please/
The question:
Find the result of operating with:
( 1 / r^2 )( d/dr )( r^2 )( d/dr + 2/r )
on the function
A * exp( -br )
What must the values of A and b be to make ths function an eigenfunction of the operator?
Solving through, applying the operator results in:
A * exp( -br) * ( b^2 + 2/r^2 - 4b/r)
Because of the 2 / r^2 term, I think the answer has to be:
"A must be 0, and b can have any value"
If that is not allowed, I think the answer is "there are no values that would make this function an eigenfunction of the operator"
Is A=0 a cheap way out? It seems like 0 would be a common solution for many eigenfunction problems if it is allowed.
Thanks again for any input!