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Baxter
02-04-2006, 08:46 PM
Ok, so my last question was answered very quickly and efficiently. Here's a tougher one. In each question the given player has the cards:
3456 (suits don't matter)

1) What are the odds that a LOW will be possible for anyone at the table? (3 cards on the board A through 8). A board of 228JK does not contain a low, since only a 2 and an 8 are on the board.

2) A much more difficult question. <font color="red"> if there is a low possible</font>, what percent of the time will the given starting hand make a straight? Just a review, each player MUST use 2 cards from their hand and three cards from the board, no more, no less.

Thanks!!!!

donkeyradish
02-05-2006, 06:44 AM
A board making some low possible occurs almost exactly 60% of the time in general. That doesn't answer your question but is good to know.

A hand of 3456 would never be worth playing against many opponents in my opinion. Even when it does make a straight it will often not be the nut straight, which is costly. And its low chances are too weak.

You are hoping for both an A and a 2 to come. And if that happens (which isnt often) the pot will probably be small anyway (fewer people likely to have seen the flop in the first place). Conversely if there are a lot of limpers it usually means the aces are already in peoples hands.

Baxter
02-05-2006, 03:42 PM
Thanks for the response but I'm just looking for the math part. I'm a fairly solid O8 player, just curious on the math. Hopefully one of these math guru's can figure it out.