VorShot
11-24-2006, 10:41 AM
We all know that if you have the right odds, you can call looking to hit a draw. What i don't understand is the thinking behing some of it.
Example.
The Pot is already $10 on the flop. You pick up the nut flush draw with a hand like A/images/graemlins/heart.gif K/images/graemlins/heart.gif on a flop of;
2/images/graemlins/heart.gif 7/images/graemlins/heart.gif Q/images/graemlins/spade.gif
You overbet the pot for $20. (Making the pot $30.)
villian pushes all in, calling the $20 and pushing another $40 left to call. (Pot is $90)
villian flips over pocket twos. (Only for this example so we know what he is holding)
We still have to call knowing that we are getting better then 2:1 on a 2:1 draw.
But the only way we got there is because of our bet.
Had we led only with a pot size bet, his all in would have priced us out.
My question is, how is it we can count the money we bet, as money we can win back knowing that using that, we could give ourselves odds?
Example.
The Pot is already $10 on the flop. You pick up the nut flush draw with a hand like A/images/graemlins/heart.gif K/images/graemlins/heart.gif on a flop of;
2/images/graemlins/heart.gif 7/images/graemlins/heart.gif Q/images/graemlins/spade.gif
You overbet the pot for $20. (Making the pot $30.)
villian pushes all in, calling the $20 and pushing another $40 left to call. (Pot is $90)
villian flips over pocket twos. (Only for this example so we know what he is holding)
We still have to call knowing that we are getting better then 2:1 on a 2:1 draw.
But the only way we got there is because of our bet.
Had we led only with a pot size bet, his all in would have priced us out.
My question is, how is it we can count the money we bet, as money we can win back knowing that using that, we could give ourselves odds?