abcjnich
11-20-2006, 11:54 PM
10K/20K play chips table at Full tilt.
Villain is in MP with 2.5 million, I have about 3 million. I have been playing TAG and the opp's have recognized this, and villain has been raising loose lately.
After a limper, Villain raises to 90K, I decide to make a play (something I had not done all night- about 120 hands) and reraise to 320K on the button with Q-7. Villain calls.
Flop: 5-6-9. Villain checks, I bet 500K (the same I would with an overpair). At this point I fully expect him to fold unless he has a set. He calls.
Turn: 8. The turn gives me the straight. At this point do I bet for value with my straight or keep representing aces?
Sure, this is play money. Pretend it's real.
Villain is in MP with 2.5 million, I have about 3 million. I have been playing TAG and the opp's have recognized this, and villain has been raising loose lately.
After a limper, Villain raises to 90K, I decide to make a play (something I had not done all night- about 120 hands) and reraise to 320K on the button with Q-7. Villain calls.
Flop: 5-6-9. Villain checks, I bet 500K (the same I would with an overpair). At this point I fully expect him to fold unless he has a set. He calls.
Turn: 8. The turn gives me the straight. At this point do I bet for value with my straight or keep representing aces?
Sure, this is play money. Pretend it's real.