essence86
10-30-2006, 02:31 PM
Hi!
Say I hold JJ. And get one caller to the flop, and the flop is 2-3-4. And say my opponent has A-10.
He makes an inside straight on a 5, and a pair of Aces with the A.
That gives him 7 outs. So I win like 72% of the time, if we get our money in on the flop.
But suppose he calls my bet on the flop, and we both have deep stacks. If he nails his hand, he has chance to win more from me.
Now, this flop wasnīt the greatest example, because of the obvious A-5 straight that could be made with a 5.
But if you imagine a more concealed hand. Even if the opponent is a big underdog, EV-, canīt the implied odds make the play EV+?
Say I hold JJ. And get one caller to the flop, and the flop is 2-3-4. And say my opponent has A-10.
He makes an inside straight on a 5, and a pair of Aces with the A.
That gives him 7 outs. So I win like 72% of the time, if we get our money in on the flop.
But suppose he calls my bet on the flop, and we both have deep stacks. If he nails his hand, he has chance to win more from me.
Now, this flop wasnīt the greatest example, because of the obvious A-5 straight that could be made with a 5.
But if you imagine a more concealed hand. Even if the opponent is a big underdog, EV-, canīt the implied odds make the play EV+?