Confused about probability/odds when drawing to a hand

[hyped1]

Ok lets say that you are in a $5/$10 FL holdem game. You are on the big blind, everyone folds and small blind completes. The flop comes and small blind raises, so there is $15 in the pot right now. You flopped four to a flush giving you odds of 1.9:1 to hit the flush on the turn or the river. You can easily call the small blind's raise since you are getting 3:1. The turn comes and the small blind raises again. Now you are facing a $10 bet into a $30 pot and the odds of the flush card coming on the river are 4.1:1. Clearly, you cannot call the raise, since you are only getting 3:1. What I am confused about is why do you use the odds of 1.9:1 to calculate the pot odds on the flop? If your flush card doesn't come on the turn, you know you are going to be facing a $10 bet on the turn, and you know you won't have the correct odds to keep drawing, so you are forced to fold if the flush card doesn't hit on the turn. Knowing that you have to hit on the turn, when facing the $5 bet on the flop, shouldn't you use the the odds of 4.2:1 of hitting the flush on the turn. If you use the odds of 4.2:1 and you are calling $5 into a $15 pot, then it is clear that you fold on the flop. However, folding here seems to against advice I have read that tell you to draw to a flush when you are getting better than 1.9:1 odds. Help me, I am confused, and I really need to understand this in order to learn when I can chase draws and when I have to fold them.

[WhiteWolf]

I always use the 4.2:1 odds on the turn (when not facing an all-in) for precisely the reason you note: if my opponent can force me off my hand on the turn, I'm only going to be able to see one more card, and I won't be getting the 1.9:1 odds. (Note that this ignores implied odds, or money I can possibly get him to call if I do hit the flush on the turn).

The situation is different if you know he will not be able to force you off a draw on the turn: for example, if you are facing a bet that puts either you or your opponent all-in on the flop, you should use the 1.9:1 odds, because you know you'll be able to see both cards to the river.

[hyped1]

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(Note that this ignores implied odds, or money I can possibly get him to call if I do hit the flush on the turn).

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Can you please explain to me how to implement implied odds in this situation and assuming my bets will get called down if I hit the flush.

[WhiteWolf]

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(Note that this ignores implied odds, or money I can possibly get him to call if I do hit the flush on the turn).

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Can you please explain to me how to implement implied odds in this situation and assuming my bets will get called down if I hit the flush.

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It's a bit of a guessing game, because you don't know if your opponent will call a bet if the flush card hits, and if he will call you don't know how big of a bet he is willing to play for. You have to take your best guess, and then factor that in.

Once you have your guess, it's pretty straightfoward math from that point. Take the current pot size (call it X), and the amount you think he will call if the flush card hits (call that Y). Add X and Y - this becomes the "implied pot size." Compare that to the size of the bet you have to call - if you're getting proper odds for your draw, you can profitably call.

[HoldenFoldem]

A less mathematical approach is to simply never play a drawing hand heads up. If you do, your opponent is getting the better odds.
Regarding implied odds, a useful question is " what do i think he has". ie i" if he has trips he will probably call a a larger bet on the river than if he has just got top pair" A great situation is when he has a straight and you hit your flush. Implied odds are better here.